My issue is the author of the article appears to being drawing analogies to suit his own needs without supplying any real data to support his claims outside of where it suited his intended purpose.

The fact is anyone publicly accused of or convicted of these types of crimes becomes a potential target of retribution not just people with disabilities.

The author clearly tries to spin things to seem as if all disabled people are being falsely targeted for accusation/conviction of sex crimes in the article referenced because they are disabled as if that's the root of the issue. This in my mind seems false when anyone regardless of their disability status would be targeted by society.

Was there a trial or not where the individuals were found guilty?

Is their a higher percentage of offenders or accused who suffer exo-judicial reciprocity that are disabled as opposed to not?