Ruby,Originally Posted by Ruby
Thanks for the input and it is very believable. It is along the lines of what I suspected. I could see no way for a word or a phrase to cause a climax in public or elsewhere without first stimulation having occurred.
I thought there would be more input to this thread but maybe it is helping prove the theory of the "Myth of the Male Orgasm." Maybe we have been faking it all these years. Yeah, right!!!!!
One question that comes to mind, if I may ask. Once permission was given to cum was it achieved without further stimulation or did he have to masturbate or have some other means to accomplish the end result? Sorry but I am curious.
Anyway, it is good to hear about at least one real life experience. Thanks again.





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