Ive been following the thread for some time but reserving comment and doing some reaserch on the subject.

One interesting point that I think bears looking at was a corolation, not between a countries direct prosperity level and low precentage rates of religious responcers so much as an inverse relationship between precentages of religious respondants and the level of comprehensive social welfare that was employed by each country.

Not all countries catagorically fit into a relationship where the more money was made the less religion was practiced, notable exceptions like the United States and others stood out.

A much higher degree of social welfare being employed by a given nation did apply in far more cases as the cuasitive agent.

In that regard then...is one not simpley replacing religion with something else in one's life?

Is such a replacement most often a headonisitc one?