The author clearly tries to spin things to seem as if all disabled people are being falsely targeted for accusation/conviction of sex crimes in the article referenced because they are disabled as if that's the root of the issue. This in my mind seems false when anyone regardless of their disability status would be targeted by society.

Was there a trial or not where the individuals were found guilty?

Is their a higher percentage of offenders or accused who suffer exo-judicial reciprocity that are disabled as opposed to not?
Now that the link is (finally) there, I hope things will become clearer.

The header is a question: Did Bijan Ebrahimi's disability incite the 'paedophile'-chasing lynch mob?

There are two issues here: hate crimes towards disabled people (which is a fact) and hate crimes against people suspected of pedophilia (which is also a fact). Are these two entwined here, so that some hate crimes towards disabled people are committed with the excuse of them being child molesters?

No trials Denuseri, we are talking murders of people who never went to trial, and in some cases were never accused either.

As for the last question, it sounds like it, but not proven. Possibly because two hates combine.